We are now wireless charging

0

We live in a wireless world. Except we don’t. Sure, we can send huge amounts of information across the airwaves, but the devices capable of sending and receiving it are tied down to power cords. Batteries allow some freedom but, eventually, we all have to come back around to the familiar face of the power outlet.

What if we didn’t? What if we could charge anywhere, at any time? This is the promise of wireless charging, a concept that seems ripped from sci-fi. But it’s not – it’s real, and it’s available today. Let’s look at the reality and see what this technology can and can’t accomplish.
The term “wireless charging” usually refers to inductive charging. This technology uses a charging station that creates an alternating magnetic field. A device with the proper induction coil will receive energy from that field when it is placed nearby, making it receive power without a physical connection.

duracellwirelesscharger


Wireless Charging Comes To The Mass Market
The lack of a common standard is another reason why wireless charging never gained much traction in consumer electronics. It wasn’t so long ago that most devices still relied on Ethernet cords for data and mobile broadband was restricted to ridiculously slow speeds. Wireless charging did not seem important before wireless communications.

That has changed thanks to the Wireless Power Consortium and its Qi (pronounced “chee”) standard. The WPC is an industry organization sponsored by various companies all seeking a standard for wireless charging. Its members include every big name in the mobile market besides Apple.

I talked about Qi Wireless after attending CES 2012. I was able to see a number of working prototypes as well as existing products that used wireless charging. These prototypes and niche solutions are now becoming a reality is mass market products. Nokia, for example, recently announced is new Lumia 920 will have wireless charging built in. The less expensive Lumia 820 will have an optional shell that enables the technology.

nokialumia


The Future Of Wireless Charging

intelwirelesscharge

Current inductive charging can be convenient, but the lack of range is a problem. It diminishes the technology to a convenience rather than a revolution.

Will this change? Maybe. There’s been plenty of research into the potential of long range wireless power and many different technologies have been used to achieve it. Lasers, microwaves and more powerful variants of inductive charging have been able to achieve longer transmission distances. Disadvantages have hampered wide-spread adoption. Tripping over a laser used for wireless power transfer, for example, could result in a vaporized foot.

It’s hard to say where a breakthrough in this field will come from. Apple is one candidate because the company has patented a device that can allegedly power devices at ranges up to one meter. The Wireless Power Consortium is also continually looking into better options. And then there’s Intel, who recently announced that it is working with Integrated Device Technology on a magnetic device that would be placed in a laptop and deliver power to nearby smartphones and peripherals.

Or a breakthrough could come from a small engineering company that’s barely known. This is a tough technical problem that will require both creative thinking and significant engineering know-how to solve. A major corporation may not be the first to find a solution.
Conclusion
Wireless charging has huge potential. This is why people have been working on it for well over a century. If we could move power without wires we’d be able to re-think not just consumer electronics but the infrastructure used by the entire human race.

Alas, we’re not there yet, but the renewed interest in this field brought by consumer electronics is appreciated. Perhaps the eternal quest of endless convenience can finally crack this technology wide open.

CCNA Discovery 4: DRSEnt Final Exam Answers version1

0

Designing and Supporting Computer Networks

1.A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server?
FTPS
HTTP
HTTPS
WEP2
TFTP



2
Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router?
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.21 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown



3
Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are displayed? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
Router(config)# encryption-password all
Router(config)# enable login encrypted
Router(config)# enable password encryption
Router(config)# service password-encryption



4
A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
Select the routing protocol to be configured.
Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface
.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.



5
How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data?
If data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the segments be resent.
If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data.
TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all data has been received.
The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and destination.



6
A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
port address translation



7
What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol?
BGP
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP



8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name?
Router# ip hostname Boise
Router# enable hostname Boise
Router(config-line)# name Boise
Router(config)# hostname Boise
Router(config)# ip hostname Boise



9
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order



10
What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses



11
Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time.
The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration mode.
The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands.
Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only when necessary.
The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command whenever possible.



12
What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.)
DNS server
WINS server
IP address
NetBIOS
subnet mask
default gateway



13
A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED?
The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM.
The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service.
The switch is functioning properly.
The switch is in half-duplex mode.



14
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct?
A – crossover, B – straight-through, C – straight-through
A – crossover, B – rollover, C – straight-through
A – straight-through, B -crossover, C – straight-through
A – straight-through, B -straight-through, C – straight-through
A – straight-through, B – straight-through, C – crossover
A – rollover, B – straight-through, C – straight-through



15
After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
transport
network
data link
physical



16
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination



17
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks?
with BGP
with a static route
with a directly connected route
with an interior routing protocol



18
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
rollover
console
crossover
straight-through



19
When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
leased line
packet switched
circuit switched
point-to-point



20
A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the user do next?
Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault.
Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault.
Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC.
Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports.



21
A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)
The router will block the ping request message.
The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.



22
How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
manual configuration of routes
updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base



23
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.)
The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client.
The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.
The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.
The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43.
The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.



24
What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination
determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer
requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source
synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer



25
Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
host address
network address
broadcast address
multicast address



26
A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?
misconfigured firewall
bad port on switch or hub
misconfigured IP addressing on the customer’s workstation
wrong DNS server configured on the customer’s workstation
wrong default gateway configured on the customer’s workstation



27
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed:

C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0
R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1

From which router was this command executed?
A
B
C
D



28
Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class
ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco
ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown
ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login



29
A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user workstation?
the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application
the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate
the DHCP settings in the operating system
the IP address, mask, and default gateway values
the NIC drivers



30
Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0



31
Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
255.255.0.0
255.192.0.0
240.0.0.0
255.0.0.0



32
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.)
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.96 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6



33
How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.
They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur.
They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers.
They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.



34
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network. Which cable type is the best choice?
STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic



35
What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the routing table?
Convergence time
Default distance
Metric
Type of router



36
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the diagram? (Choose two.)
192.168.65.31
192.168.65.32
192.168.65.35
192.168.65.60
192.168.65.63
192.168.65.64



37
Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet?
255.255.0.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248



38
Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a centralized network management device? (Choose two.)
Syslog
Telnet
HTTP
HTTPS
SNMP



39
What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.



40
Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB? (Choose two.)
The router is connected to a router named Boise.
Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router.
Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers.
The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6.
The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links.



41
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route to the ISP network :

RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.6
A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem?
The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the next hop address.
The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.



42
A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer protocol makes this possible?
SNMP
FTP
DHCP
SMTP



43
What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.)
to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts
to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client computers
to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process
to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses
to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system



44
A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network?
an IDS
an IPS
a host-based firewall
Anti-X software



45
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096



46
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address



47
A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which WAN connection type is best suited to its needs?
Sonet
T3
dialup
DSL
leased line



48
The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will this command do?
copy the configuration in RAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM



49
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0 interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252



50
Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown. What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.)
to map the path to 192.168.1.7
to test reachability to 192.168.1.7
to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7
to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the address 192.168.1.7
to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the technician’s workstation

1.A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server?
FTPS
HTTP
HTTPS
WEP2
TFTP



2
Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router?
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.21 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown



3
Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are displayed? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
Router(config)# encryption-password all
Router(config)# enable login encrypted
Router(config)# enable password encryption
Router(config)# service password-encryption



4
A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
Select the routing protocol to be configured.
Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface
.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.



5
How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data?
If data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the segments be resent.
If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data.
TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all data has been received.
The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and destination.



6
A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
port address translation



7
What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol?
BGP
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP



8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name?
Router# ip hostname Boise
Router# enable hostname Boise
Router(config-line)# name Boise
Router(config)# hostname Boise
Router(config)# ip hostname Boise



9
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order



10
What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses



11
Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time.
The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration mode.
The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands.
Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only when necessary.
The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command whenever possible.



12
What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.)
DNS server
WINS server
IP address
NetBIOS
subnet mask
default gateway



13
A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED?
The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM.
The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service.
The switch is functioning properly.
The switch is in half-duplex mode.



14
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct?
A – crossover, B – straight-through, C – straight-through
A – crossover, B – rollover, C – straight-through
A – straight-through, B -crossover, C – straight-through
A – straight-through, B -straight-through, C – straight-through
A – straight-through, B – straight-through, C – crossover
A – rollover, B – straight-through, C – straight-through



15
After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
transport
network
data link
physical



16
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination



17
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks?
with BGP
with a static route
with a directly connected route
with an interior routing protocol



18
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
rollover
console
crossover
straight-through



19
When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
leased line
packet switched
circuit switched
point-to-point



20
A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the user do next?
Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault.
Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault.
Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC.
Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports.



21
A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)
The router will block the ping request message.
The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.



22
How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
manual configuration of routes
updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base



23
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.)
The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client.
The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.
The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.
The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43.
The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.



24
What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination
determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer
requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source
synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer



25
Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
host address
network address
broadcast address
multicast address



26
A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?
misconfigured firewall
bad port on switch or hub
misconfigured IP addressing on the customer’s workstation
wrong DNS server configured on the customer’s workstation
wrong default gateway configured on the customer’s workstation



27
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed:

C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0
R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1

From which router was this command executed?
A
B
C
D



28
Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class
ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco
ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown
ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login



29
A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user workstation?
the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application
the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate
the DHCP settings in the operating system
the IP address, mask, and default gateway values
the NIC drivers



30
Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0



31
Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
255.255.0.0
255.192.0.0
240.0.0.0
255.0.0.0



32
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.)
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.96 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6



33
How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.
They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur.
They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers.
They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.



34
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network. Which cable type is the best choice?
STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic



35
What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the routing table?
Convergence time
Default distance
Metric
Type of router



36
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the diagram? (Choose two.)
192.168.65.31
192.168.65.32
192.168.65.35
192.168.65.60
192.168.65.63
192.168.65.64



37
Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet?
255.255.0.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248



38
Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a centralized network management device? (Choose two.)
Syslog
Telnet
HTTP
HTTPS
SNMP



39
What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.



40
Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB? (Choose two.)
The router is connected to a router named Boise.
Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router.
Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers.
The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6.
The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links.



41
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route to the ISP network :

RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.6
A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem?
The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the next hop address.
The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.



42
A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer protocol makes this possible?
SNMP
FTP
DHCP
SMTP



43
What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.)
to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts
to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client computers
to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process
to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses
to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system



44
A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network?
an IDS
an IPS
a host-based firewall
Anti-X software



45
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096



46
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address



47
A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which WAN connection type is best suited to its needs?
Sonet
T3
dialup
DSL
leased line



48
The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will this command do?
copy the configuration in RAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM



49
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0 interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252



50
Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown. What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.)
to map the path to 192.168.1.7
to test reachability to 192.168.1.7
to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7
to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the address 192.168.1.7
to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the technician’s workstation

CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Final Exam Answers

0

Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
• client
• server
• pruning
• transparent

2. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
• Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
• LCP tests the quality of the link.
• LCP manages compression on the link

• Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.

5.
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
• RB has the lowest priority value.
• RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
• RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
• RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP with CHAP authentication
• PPP with PAP authentication

7.
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
• VTP V2 mode is disabled.
• SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
• The number of existing VLANs does not match.
• The configuration revision number does not match.

8.
1
Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
• A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
• Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
• Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
• Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• number of ports
• switch location
• switching speed
• base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

11.
4
What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
• feasible distance of the successor
• reported distance of the successor
• feasible distance of the feasible successor
• reported distance of the feasible successor

12.
16
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
• R1
• R2
• R3
• ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
• faster communication with server farms
• stronger security against malicious attacks
• faster communication with Internet destinations
• enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.
11
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
• R2: Fa0/0 inbound
• R1: S0/1/0 outbound
• R1: S0/0/1 inbound
• R2: S0/0/1 outbound
• R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.
6
Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
• C, B, A, D
• D, C, B, A
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
• A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.
10
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
• Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
• Router B has a fully converged topology table.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
• RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
• Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
• RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
• RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
• RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
• The IP address is already in use.
• The technician is using a network address.
• The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
• The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.
8
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
• A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
• A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

21.
10
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
• The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
• The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
• The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
• The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
• The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.
5
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
• no set loopback
• incorrect subnet mask on R2
• incompatible bandwidth
• incorrect IP address on R1
• incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
• to determine the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
• The key passes between routers in plain text.
• The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
• The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
• The key is never transmitted.
• The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.
9
Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
• Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
• No host can reach any other host.
• Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
• All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
• Router(config-router)# null 0 route
• Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
• Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.
3
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
• There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
• There is a network statement missing.
• Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

• The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
• /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16

• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.
14
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
• 192.168.13.4/30
• 192.168.13.5/30
• 192.168.13.7/30
• 192.168.13.58/30
• 192.168.13.61/27
• 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
• define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
• add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic

• deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
• connect remote locations directly to the intranet
• configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
• deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
• It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
• The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
• The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
• It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
• TCP
• UDP
• PPP
• HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
• access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
• access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
• to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
• to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
• provides segmentation of broadcast domains
• allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
• allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
• prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
• 10.200.11.69
• 10.200.16.1
• 10.200.0.255
• 10.201.0.55
• 10.200.15.240
• 10.200.30.29

37.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
• All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
• Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

38.
2
Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.
13
Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
• The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
• The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
• The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
• 0.0.0.0 5
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 0.0.31.255
• 255.255.255.240
• 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
• leased line
• cell switched
• circuit switched
• packet switched

42.
3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
• 192.168.0.0/22
• 192.168.0.0/23
• 192.168.0.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/25

43.
2
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
• R1
• R2
• R3
• R4

44.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
• A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
• The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
• Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
• The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.

• The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

45.
4
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
• All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
• The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
• The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
• The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

46.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
• RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
• RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.
12
Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
• The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
• The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
• This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
• The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

48.
17
Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
• 192.168.1.0/22
• 192.168.4.0/21
• 192.168.6.0/23
• 192.168.8.0/21
• 192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
• It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
• It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
• Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
• The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
• Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

50.
13
Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
• VTP version mismatch
• VTP domain name mismatch
• VTP revision number mismatch
• Time synchronization problems

51.
6
Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
• A
• B
• C

• D
• E
• F

52.
12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
• It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
• It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• Static routes are more secure.
• Static routes converge faster.
• Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
• The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
• They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
• allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
• configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
• implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
• associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
• manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
• Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
• Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
• By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
• Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
• By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
• RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
• VPN
• NCP
• TDM
• STP
• STDM

57.
9
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
• a child route that is defined
• a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
• a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
• the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
• prior to link establishment
• during the link establishment phase
• before the network layer protocol configuration begins
• after the network layer protocol configuration has ended

1. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
• client
• server
• pruning
• transparent

2. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
• Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
• LCP tests the quality of the link.
• LCP manages compression on the link

• Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.

5.
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
• RB has the lowest priority value.
• RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
• RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
• RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP with CHAP authentication
• PPP with PAP authentication

7.
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
• VTP V2 mode is disabled.
• SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
• The number of existing VLANs does not match.
• The configuration revision number does not match.

8.
1
Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
• A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
• Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
• Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
• Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• number of ports
• switch location
• switching speed
• base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

11.
4
What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
• feasible distance of the successor
• reported distance of the successor
• feasible distance of the feasible successor
• reported distance of the feasible successor

12.
16
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
• R1
• R2
• R3
• ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
• faster communication with server farms
• stronger security against malicious attacks
• faster communication with Internet destinations
• enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.
11
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
• R2: Fa0/0 inbound
• R1: S0/1/0 outbound
• R1: S0/0/1 inbound
• R2: S0/0/1 outbound
• R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.
6
Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
• C, B, A, D
• D, C, B, A
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
• A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.
10
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
• Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
• Router B has a fully converged topology table.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
• RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
• Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
• RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
• RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
• RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
• The IP address is already in use.
• The technician is using a network address.
• The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
• The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.
8
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
• A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
• A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

21.
10
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
• The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
• The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
• The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
• The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
• The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.
5
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
• no set loopback
• incorrect subnet mask on R2
• incompatible bandwidth
• incorrect IP address on R1
• incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
• to determine the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
• The key passes between routers in plain text.
• The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
• The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
• The key is never transmitted.
• The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.
9
Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
• Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
• No host can reach any other host.
• Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
• All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
• Router(config-router)# null 0 route
• Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
• Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.
3
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
• There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
• There is a network statement missing.
• Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

• The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
• /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16

• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.
14
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
• 192.168.13.4/30
• 192.168.13.5/30
• 192.168.13.7/30
• 192.168.13.58/30
• 192.168.13.61/27
• 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
• define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
• add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic

• deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
• connect remote locations directly to the intranet
• configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
• deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
• It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
• The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
• The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
• It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
• TCP
• UDP
• PPP
• HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
• access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
• access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
• to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
• to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
• provides segmentation of broadcast domains
• allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
• allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
• prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
• 10.200.11.69
• 10.200.16.1
• 10.200.0.255
• 10.201.0.55
• 10.200.15.240
• 10.200.30.29

37.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
• All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
• Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

38.
2
Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.
13
Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
• The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
• The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
• The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
• 0.0.0.0 5
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 0.0.31.255
• 255.255.255.240
• 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
• leased line
• cell switched
• circuit switched
• packet switched

42.
3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
• 192.168.0.0/22
• 192.168.0.0/23
• 192.168.0.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/25

43.
2
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
• R1
• R2
• R3
• R4

44.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
• A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
• The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
• Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
• The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.

• The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

45.
4
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
• All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
• The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
• The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
• The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

46.
7
Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
• RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
• RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.
12
Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
• The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
• The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
• This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
• The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

48.
17
Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
• 192.168.1.0/22
• 192.168.4.0/21
• 192.168.6.0/23
• 192.168.8.0/21
• 192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
• It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
• It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
• Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
• The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
• Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

50.
13
Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
• VTP version mismatch
• VTP domain name mismatch
• VTP revision number mismatch
• Time synchronization problems

51.
6
Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
• A
• B
• C

• D
• E
• F

52.
12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
• It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
• It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• Static routes are more secure.
• Static routes converge faster.
• Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
• The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
• They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
• allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
• configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
• implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
• associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
• manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
• Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
• Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
• By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
• Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
• By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
• RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
• VPN
• NCP
• TDM
• STP
• STDM

57.
9
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
• a child route that is defined
• a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
• a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
• the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
• prior to link establishment
• during the link establishment phase
• before the network layer protocol configuration begins
• after the network layer protocol configuration has ended

HOW TO SETUP A WIRELESS NETWORK

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Some networks are efficient and convenient, but the mess of wires and cables involved can hold you captive to a few locations in your home. Setting up a wireless network is easy and economical. Simply use these tips and use your Windows Wireless Network Setup Wizard.

Get Your Equipment Together

We will assume that you already have a small (wired) network set up or are at least familiar with the networking terms discussed in this article. We’ll also assume you’re running Windows XP Service Pack 2 (SP2) or higher. Begin building your wireless network with components below.

Wireless Router
A device that broadcasts high-speed internet access wirelessly throughout your home or office.
Approximately $50-$100. 

Wireless Network Adapter or Card
The means through which your computers connect to the router. They come in PCI format (desktops), PCMCIA format (laptops) and USB. You need one for each computer you wish to connect to the router.Most new computers have this built-in technology labeled Bluetooth or AirPort.
Approximately $40-$100. 

Cable or DSL Modem
A broadband connection to the internet that is provided by your service provider.
Approximately $60 to buy your own, not including monthly subscription cost 

We assume you already have a broadband connection to the Internet (if you don’t, you’ll need to set one up). Also, keep in mind that most new laptops come with wireless network adapters, so check yours before making your shopping list.

 

Setup Your Network Hardware

  1. Check that your cable or DSL modem is installed correctly.
  2. Install the wireless network adapters (if needed) in each computer as instructed by the manufacturer.
  3. Install the wireless router by connecting your cable or DSL modem to the WAN (wide area network) port of your router. If you leave one of your computers “wired,” you can connect its Ethernet cable to one of the router’s other ports. If you have multiple floors in your home or office, Agents recommend putting the router on the middle floor for maximum signal strength. Keep in mind, though, that if you choose to keep one of your computers wired, you need to keep the router near that computer.
  4. Turn on the router and wait for its diagnostic lights to remain stable.
  5. To test connectivity, open a browser window on one of your systems and enter the router’s default IP address (provided in its documentation). If you’ve configured everything correctly, you should end up at your router’s configuration screen.

 

Know Your Wireless Security

This wizard also helps you secure your network so no one else can gain access to the private intelligence on your systems. Below are available security features to implement.

SSID (Service Set Identifier)
All wireless devices in your network must specify a password or SSID. Our agents strongly recommend a unique, obscure combination of letters and numbers that you can recall easily.

WEP Security (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
A security protocol for wireless networks designed to provide the same security as a wired network, WEP encrypts data as it’s transmitted radio waves.

WPA Security (Wireless Protected Access)
A security protocol designed with stronger data encryption and user authentication, WPA is relatively new and more secure than WEP.

 

Configure Your Network on Windows XP

  1. Click the Start button and choose All Programs → Accessories→ Communications→ Wireless Network Setup Wizard.
  2. On the wizard’s first screen, click Next.
  3. In the Network Name (SSID) text box, type a unique name for your network. Be sure to use a combination of letters and numbers. Make sure you give your network a name you’ll remember, but one that others can’t guess.
    create network name 
  4. Select the Automatically Assign a Network Key (Recommended) so that Windows assigns a secure key of random letters and numbers to your network.
  5. To assign WPA encryption rather than the default WEP encryption, select the “Use WPA Encryption.” However, before you select this option, check your wireless devices’ documentation to ensure they work with WPA.
  6. Click Next to advance to the wizard’s next screen.

 

Transfer Your Settings to the Router

The next series of wizard screens helps you transfer your wireless network settings to the other computers and devices in your network. You can also configure your wireless network without a Flash drive by entering security values generated by the Wireless Network Setup Wizard into the other systems in your network and your router.

  1. Select Use a USB Flash Drive (Recommended) to use your Flash drive and click Next.
    setup wireless network 
  2. Insert your Flash drive into your computer’s USB port, as shown below. Its drive letter appears in the Flash drive drop-down list along the bottom of the wizard window. The wizard then writes the wireless network settings as XML files on the Flash drive.save wireless settings to flash drive 
  3. Follow the wizard’s on-screen directions and plug your Flash drive into the router. The router’s lights will blink three times to indicate it has configured itself with the wireless network settings stored on the Flash drive.
    transfer wireless settings 

 

Transfer Your Settings to Other Computers

  1. Plug your Flash drive into each of the other computers in your wireless network. The Status light on each computer’s wireless adapter will blink three times to indicate that the system has accepted the network settings.
  2. When asked if you want to join the wireless network, click Accept. Your computers are now connected to your wireless network.

 

Finalize the Network Setup

  1. Plug the Flash drive back into the computer on which you’re running the Wireless Network Setup Wizard.
  2. Click Next in the wizard screen.
  3. On the wizard’s final screen, you’ll see a list of the wireless computers and devices you’ve successfully configured. To remove the network settings from your Flash drive, select the For Security Reasons, Remove the Network Settings from My Flash Drive check box. If you expect to use your Flash drive to configure additional wireless computers or devices in the future, leave this check box deselected.
  4. Click Finish to exit the Wireless Network Setup Wizard.

Agents recommend that you reconfigure your wireless network’s strong key (WEP or WPA) every few months to keep out potential eavesdroppers. Simply run the wizard and it assigns a new set of strong keys automatically.

Google Driverless car

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The Google Driverless Car is a project by Google that involves developing technology for driverless cars. The project is currently being led by Google engineer Sebastian Thrun, director of the Stanford Artificial Intelligence Laboratory and co-inventor of Google Street View. Thrun’s team at Stanford created the robotic vehicle Stanley which won the 2005 DARPA Grand Challenge and its US$2 million prize from the United States Department of Defense. The team developing the system consisted of 15 engineers working for Google, including Chris Urmson, Mike Montemerlo, and Anthony Levandowski who had worked on the DARPA Grand and Urban Challenges.

The U.S. state of Nevada passed a law in June 2011 concerning the operation of driverless cars in Nevada. Google had been lobbying for driverless car laws. The Nevada law went into effect on March 1, 2012, and the Nevada Department of Motor Vehicles issued the first license for a self-driven car in May 2012. The license was issued to a Toyota Prius modified with Google’s experimental driver-less technology.

CCNA 4 Final Exam answers 2012 (Updated)

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 BEST CCNA 4 FINAL EXAM answers 2012

1.

CCNA 4 Final thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.

A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.

The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.

Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

 

2. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

 

3. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

 

 

4. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?

PAP uses a two-way handshake.

The password is unique and random.

PAP conducts periodic password challenges.

PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

 

5. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?

when global DLCIs are in use

when using physical interfaces

when multicasts must be supported

when participating routers are in the same subnet

 

6. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.

The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.

A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1” in the wildcard mask.

IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0” in the wildcard mask.

 

7.

CCNA 4 Final Exam thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

 

8. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

access control list

routing protocol

inbound interface

ARP cache

 

9. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

encapsulation

encryption

hashing

 

10.

CCNA 4 Final Exam 4.0 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2. What additional configuration should be included on both routers to complete the task?

CCNA 4 v4 Final Exam thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

CCNA 640 802 Final Exam thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

CCNA Accessing the WAN Final Exam Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

CCNA Discovery 4 Final Exam Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

 

11. A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend?

star

full mesh

hierarchical

partial mesh

 

12. An administrator issues the command confreg 0×2142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted?

Contents in RAM will be erased.

Contents in RAM will be ignored.

Contents in NVRAM will be erased.

Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.

 

13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?

TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.

Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network

Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.

Traffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

 

14.

CCNA Exam Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two).

Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied.

Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied.

Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted.

Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted.

Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.

 

15.

CCNA Exploration 4 Final Exam Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

 

16. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.

Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

 

17.

CCNA Final thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. In the partial router configuration that is shown, what is the purpose of access list BLOCK_XYZ?

to prevent source IP address spoofing by hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN

to block access by Fa0/0 LAN hosts to all network services beyond the router

to prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the router

to secure Fa0/0 hosts by allowing only locally sourced traffic into the Fa0/0 LAN

 

18. While troubleshooting a PPP link that uses PAP authentication, a network administrator notices an incorrectly configured password in the running configuration. The administrator corrects the error by entering the command ppp pap sent-username ROUTER_NAME password NEW_PASSWORD, but the link still does not come up.
Assuming that the rest of the configuration is correct and that the link has no physical layer problems, what should the administrator do?

Save the configuration to NVRAM.

Shut down the interface then re-enable it.

Generate traffic by pinging the remote router.

Use CHAP to ensure compatibility with the remote router.

 

19. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

 

20. Which important piece of troubleshooting information can be discovered about a serial interface using the show controllers command?

queuing strategy

serial cable type

interface IP address

encapsulation method

 

21. A DHCP server is configured with a block of excluded addresses. What two devices would be assigned static addresses from the excluded address range? (Choose two.)

a protocol analyzer

DNS server for the network

network printer that is used by many different users

a laptop that will get a different address each time it boots up

 

22. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames?

DE

BE

CIR

FECN

CBIR

 

23.

CCNA Final Exam 2011 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?

ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3

ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3

ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254

 

24. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28?

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16

 

25.

CCNA Final Exam Answers 4.0 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.

Verify that the TFTP server software is running.

Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.

Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

 

26. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM

Frame Relay

HDLC

PPP

SDLC

 

27. What is tunneling?

using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic

creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network

using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures

encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network

 

28. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP

 

29.

CCNA v4 Final Exam thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

 

30. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS

latency

reliability

confidentiality

 

31. A network administrator determines that falsified routing information is propagating through the network. What action can be used to address this threat?

Update the IOS images.

Change console passwords.

Employ end-user authentication.

Configure routing protocol authentication.

 

32. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

demarcation point

local loop

cloud

 

33. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE

DE

CIR

CBIR

 

34.

Cisco CCNA Final 4 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.

The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.

The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.

The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

 

35. A network technician wants to implement SSH as the means by which a router may be managed remotely. What are two procedures that the technician should use to successfully complete this task? (Choose two.)

Configure the login banner.

Configure authentication.

Define the asymmetrical keys.

Configure the console password.

Enter the service password-encryption command.

 

36. A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?

Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

 

37. Which type of network attack exploits vulnerabilities in the compromised system with the intent of propagating itself across a network?

virus

worm

Trojan horse

man-in-the-middle

 

38.

EWAN Final Exam Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.

The VTP domain names do not match.

Only one switch can be in server mode.

S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

 

39.

CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. WestSW is supposed to send VLAN information to EastSW, but that did not occur. What will force WestSW to send a VLAN update to EastSW?

Change EastSW to be a VTP server.

Reload both WestSW and EastSW at the same time.

Erase the VLAN database on EastSW and reload the switch.

Reset the configuration revision number on EastSW to zero.

Reload EastSW.

 

40. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

reduced jitter

reduced costs

reduced latency

the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth

the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

 

41.

CCNA Exam 2011 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?

/19

/20

/21

/22

/23

/24

 

42.

CCNA Exam Answers 2011 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. Computers on the internal network need access to all servers in the external network. The only traffic that is permitted from the external network must be responses to requests that are initiated on the internal network. Which security measure would satisfy this requirement?

a numbered extended ACL

a named standard ACL

a reflexive ACL

a dynamic ACL

 

43. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?

Wi-Fi

satellite

WiMAX

Metro Ethernet

 

44.

Cisco CCNA 4 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet.

 

45. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

 

46.

Refer to the exhibit thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that three VLANs created on SW1 do not show in SW3. Based on output from the show vtp status and show running-config commands, what is the cause of the problem in the SW3 configuration?

VTP version 2 is disabled.

The VTP mode is misconfigured.

The configure revision number for VTP does not match.

Trunk mode is not configured on FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2.

 

47. Which address provides an example of an IPv6 link-local address?

FE80::1324:ABCD

2001:2345:AB12:1935::FEFF

2001:1234:0000:9CA::0876/64

1234:ABCD:5678:EF00:9234:AA22:5527:FC35

 

48. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

CCNA Updated 2011 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

CCNA Exam Updated 2011 thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

CCNA 4 Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

CCNA v4 Answers thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

 

49. What major benefit does Cisco HDLC provide that ISO standard HDLC lacks?

flow control

error control

multiprotocol support

cyclic redundancy checks

 

50. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

application layer

 

51.

exhibit thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.

They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.

They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.

They support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

 

52.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator thumb CCNA 4 Final Exam 2011 (Updated)

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem?

The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2.

The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point.

The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end.

A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.

THE WORLD’S NUMBER ONE CRYPTOLOGIST/CRYPTOGRAPHER, SIR NEO ROGGI J.R BRANSON.

17

A cryptographer is someone who performs in the field of cryptology. Cryptology is the study of codes and ciphers and also the breaking of them.

Meet the world’s leading cryptologist, “we’re a rare breed on a mission to keep the world safe.”

….. A genius with my Kenyan roots! with 0nly 23 years.

The Most Protected Kid On Earth, The One, Leap Kid, Ultimate Kid, Universal Kid, The Parable To All Geniuses.


Early Life

Sir Neo Roggi Joseph Rogern Branson was born on Monday, February 29, 1988 in Manchester, England. Sir Roggi’s father, Sir Charles Lynton Rogern Branson, was of English descent. His mother, Wilfrida Beatrice Dudu Branson, was African of French-Indian descent through the Indian lineage of the great Varma. Sir Rogern’s father worked as a foreign diplomat for European Union. His father passed on when Sir Rogern was four years old. Sir Neo Rogern Branson has a vague memory of him.
Sir Neo Roggi Branson experienced an unstable childhood moving around UK frequently before he was taken in by a friend of his father, Charles Reeves. Sir Roggi was young and lost his inheritance to his relatives. His late mother moved to East Africa.
Sir Neo Rogern Branson grew up primarily in Manchester. Within a span of four years, he attended six different schools, including an African high school and the Oxford School of the Arts, from which he was later transferred. Half-jokingly, Sir Neo says that he was transferred “because I was a challenge in every field. I was generally the best-oiled machine in the schools. I was just shrewd lad, I guess.”
Sir Neo excelled more in technology and mathematics than in any other field, as his knack unveiled. He also indulged in soccer and was a successful striker at one of his high schools. His team nicknamed him “The Force,” and voted him MVP. Sir Neo says that he would dream of becoming a Manchester United striker. This explains his investment hold in the English team. After leaving Oxford, he attended various IT institutes (Specializing in Cryptology, Advanced Mathematics, Advanced Avionics, Geo-magnetism, High-Level Artillery, Micro-Electronics and Bio Chemical Arts), which allowed him to obtain degrees while working as a Cryptographer/Cryptologist with US National Security Agency and RSS.

Career

Sir Neo Rogern Branson began his IT career at a tender age. This was brought about by his early exposure in 1992 by the Ministry of Defence, United Kingdom for hacking into a system that took 25 years to generate. Aged four years, Sir Neo cracked the coding of the most secure system in Europe in a matter of seconds causing a massive systems shake up all over. He appeared on TV at a conference of Computer World. At 14, he got his first IT and Micro-Electronics degrees. Sir Neo Roggi made his debut in a BBC Television interview. Throughout the 1990s, he appeared in conferences (including three for Cellular), did visual effects for short films and commercials for Nokia and Village Road Show Pictures.
Sir Neo Rogern’s first software creation was the Upgraded RogerNetTop® documented by NSA, which was re-launched in New York. The credit for this was taken by Keane Bridges since Sir Neo Rogern’s identity was deemed classified. Shortly after the software release, Bridges filed for custody of all Sir Neo Roggi’s inventions and was granted by the US Supreme Court without the consent of Sir Roggi’s late mother or Charles Reeves at the time. Bridges convinced the Computer World that he was to be Roggi’s manager and agent before he even arrived in Los Angeles in 2005. Keane Bridges took credit for most of Sir Roggi’s inventions for some time.
After a few major coding and inventions, Sir Neo Rogern Branson received a Best Cryptographer Award in May 2005 and made way into the Cryptographers’ list. Following the success of Sir Rogern’s Manex Visual Effects Software®, used in the Matrix sequels and the unexpectedly successful NeoROG® software, which, along with its 2004 upgrade, classified Sir Neo Roggi Branson as a top rated genius. Much of his subsequent portrayal in the press and much of the response to his knack has been influenced by his creation of the Manex Visual Effects software hence the name ‘The Neo’. Sir Rogern has said that “It is an honor to have big names in film production recommending the use of Manex in hit movies and asking for ‘The Neo’ to do visual arts and digital special effects.
During the year 2003, Sir Neo Rogern Branson started to break out of his ‘incognito’ period. His software use in high-budget action films like Matrix and its sequels, for which he won IT World’s “Most Creative Mind” award in 2004. His creations were also involved in various lower-budget independent inventions, including special effects contracts for Indian films as a result of his brother Ashish Rambilas Varma Rogern Branson [Aarav Varma] and other links he has in India.
In 2006, Sir Neo Rogern’s career reached a new high as a result of his second record in the history of Cryptology. His listing in the contest was controversial since Keane Bridges had caused a series of events that frustrated Sir Neo’s movement. It was primarily known that Sir Rogern would not participate in the contest. After a government restraining order was issued against Keane Bridges, Sir Neo was cleared to participate and proceeded to break his previous record, setting a new time record and was named the world’s Prime Cryptographer.
Sir Neo Rogern Branson’s career progresses after The 2nd Cryptology Record were eclectic: despite his successes Sir Neo Roggi has never stopped accepting minor contracts, and he has always been willing to support experimental efforts. He scored a hit with a lead inventor role in The Nokia N-Series and made news by refusing to take part in the development of the I-Phone and choosing to work on the Samsung Galaxy Series. Sir Neo Rogern got surprisingly good response for his successful generation of the cellular software. This led to generation of the Nokia E and O-Series cellular software and watch mobile respectively. These two completed the N.E.O. Series software in honor of his late father who always called him Neo Branson hence his renowned identity, Rogern de Neo.
Lewis Timberlake, the Times critic, wrote that “Roggi Rogern has the ingenuity that the entire world will learn to appreciate. He simply has a revolutionary fresh mind and infinite prolific ingenuity. In a matter of hours, Rogern does what would take at least world top ten IT specialists’ several months or years to get done right. He is one of the top three geniuses I have seen, for a simple reason: he is The Right One.”
Sir Rogern’s other creation after NeoROG®, however, ended up in the hands of NSA. Big-budget ATM Mapping and Monitoring Tool and Renoir: General Network Visualization and Manipulation Program was handed to the US patent office and rights were exclusive to NSA. Multiverse and its upgrades were also done under NSA although Sir Neo Roggi got patent rights. He made headlines in Europe and Asia when he programmed a cellular phone and used it to deflect an Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile that was to hit Former Israeli Prime Minister A. Sharon in 2005. Since ‘No good deed goes unpunished’, Russian officials banned Sir Neo Rogern from using cellular phones while he was in Moscow. Iran also did the same. This was a major blow as he was listed as the most lethal hacker in the world by Wired organization.
The interdictions by the two countries were later lifted when Sir Roggi, using the same cellular technique, disarmed suitcase explosives that targeted Russian and Arabic officials.
This caused screenplay writers to seek Sir Rogern’s attention in order to get rights to portray what he did in their respective productions. This was done in the several episodes in the real-time production of the 24 series and Heroes.
Sir Neo Roggi Rogern made a comeback with a release of an all time award winning software ROG Buster® and the Rogern Tracker®[The “Grecko” Player Tracker]. The “Rogern Tracker”, named the most profitable software ever invented, was used in the making of Oceans 13, [Termed as “Grecko Tracker” in the movie], although it’s full capabilities were not demonstrated in the movie. It was later disclosed that the “Rogern Tracker” had been used in tracking various lead terrorists and this led to attempts on Sir Rogern’s life.
Sir Rogern’s listing in the Forbes was deferred twice by the House of Lords for unknown reasons. The Rogern Tracker® guaranteeing the tracking of any activity on earth with an in-built Thermal Recognition Technology made over $1.8 Billion in the first two weeks of sales to casinos across Europe and US, cellular networks and security agencies after the launch in New York City. It was also adopted for calculating election projections and preventing flaws in the Australian, German, Israeli, Indian, UK and US Elections. As a result of the makings, Sir Neo R.J.R Branson made a major donation for global projects through the Global funds. A further $50 million dollars was transferred from his personal funds to help feed and house people in Indian cities. This great act of charity towards India is said to have been highly influenced by Sir Neo’s brother Ashish Rambilas Varma Rogern Branson [Aarav Varma]. G8 Leaders regards Ashish R.V.R Branson as the only one who can sway Sir Neo to do anything.
Sir Neo Branson is also known to be the one who came up with the Flight Simulation Technology [Patent Code Name: GB-NEO 07 FST], a technique that has enabled world airlines and Air Forces to be in control of their various airbuses and jets respectively while in mid-air. The technology has enabled the control and manipulation of planes remotely from the ground. As a result of Sir Neo Rogern’s perfection, world top airlines have already applied the technology and can cause a jet and/or plane to take off or land on Autopilot.  He has also upgraded the technology and in various emergency cases, applied the technique by personally landing planes in European and US airports using cellular phones remotely.
The technology, whose patent is also under Sir Neo’s name and digital signature, has elicited strong reactions with various world stakeholders stating that it has revolutionised the aviation industry.
Mobile Money Transfer Services Technology [Patent Code Name: GB-ROG 07 MMTS], has also made Sir Neo go beyond all geniuses and retain a well deserved reputation of being an All-Round Genius. He proceeded to patent it by registering the digital signature ROG 07 making all Banking Institutions and Cellular Networks comply with his terms before utilizing the technology under their various networks. The patent code name remains GB-ROG 07 MMTS Technology as various cellular networks choose various titles for it including Airtel Money, AT & T Cash, Cingular Cash, MTN Money, Orange Money, T-Mobile Quid and VODA Cash among others.
The creation of Twitter and the Hologram development with the use of Sir Rogern’s Precision Time Coding for them solidified Sir Neo Rogern Branson’s place as an all time youngest inventor in the history of Computer World/Technology. In between the first ROG Buster and its upgrades, Sir Rogern received positive reviews for his creation of Rogern Tracker® software. Aside from The Matrix and its sequels, Rogern’s Manex Visual Effects software creation was found useful in, Star Wars: III & VI, Mr. and Mrs. Smith, Constantine, Pirates of The Caribbean Sequels, The Core, Priest, Bourne Ultimatum among other films and TV series.
His 2008 special effects role in the movie Taken, based on a real story, received favorable reviews. Sir Rogern also secured a visual effects software deal in the November 2008 Bond film release, Quantum of Solace, Body of Lies and Eagle Eye. Other films that he influenced in Special Effects are under Colombia, Paramount and Sony Entertainment.
Sir Neo is currently working on a Nuclear Anti-Radiation Spectrum Technology / Rogern’s NARS Technology® [also known as Rogern’s NARST®]. Major Scientists and Technologists report that the Spectrum Technology is bound to counter Global Warming and also make it impossible for any nation to use Nuclear, Weather or DNA weapons against humanity.

Crypto-Arts

Sir Neo Roggi Joseph Rogern Branson’s intricate techniques in technological fields depict him as an extraordinary kid. His early life activities from hacking into the MOD highly-secure security system to crippling global databases, from controlling power grids triggering power failure in Beijing, Berlin, Dubai, Moscow, Nairobi, New Delhi, New York and Washington, DC to freezing time lines in mainframes in a global demonstration has led to a well deserved reputation of being the only one who can solely control the flow of information on the internet and global technology.
His fluency in twenty-nine systems languages namely:- Hindi, Flemish, Italian, English, Sinhalese, Swedish, Afrikaans, Pulaski, French, Greek, Hebrew, Finnish, Arabic, Danish, Portuguesa, Spanish, Russian, Dutch, Kuchi, Romana, and Swahili, enables him to study all patterns in the world systems. He also reads and writes ancient Egyptian in addition to deciphering hieroglyphics and hieratic. He is known to have the knack of deciphering codes (hacking), tracing electronic records in banking and computer systems, encoding and encryption of systems of data accounts and bank accounts, deactivating launching sequences of ICBM and manipulating timings of electronic bombs, upgrading digital sequences, Creation of timing intervals, routing of satellite paths, software creation and invention, visual and audio tracing of records using several devices, generation of prototype super chips and reprogramming systems that are considered hostile among other especial arts.
Sir Neo R.J.R Branson is known to have deflected off intercontinental ballistic missile using a cellular phone and a satellite link in 2005. He also created a shield force around nukes causing disarming sequences in all with 100% neutralization of radiation possibilities using the same mode. His unprecedented technique is documented in India, New York, Russia, Iran and Israel in some public museums and classified sensationalist tabs. In the same year, Sir Roggi Rogern was authorized by US federal authorities to facilitate the electronic tracing and retrieval of two hundred and fifty-two million US dollars [USD. 252,000,000] in lost funds previously looted through syndicates – Documented by GCN and Federal agencies. Sir Neo Roggi successfully fulfilled the task and made it obvious that he had the ability to do anything in the global systems.
Tests show that his ingenuity advances on a second by second basis in sophisticated precision. Major astounding crypto-arts Sir Neo Roggi has displayed in the past and still thrives in include:-
Overriding Most-Secure Codes/Coding arrays in an alarming record time
of 5 seconds.
v  Freezing time in global systems including satellite [demonstrated in
Asia, Australia. Europe and US] hence the name “The Neo”
Disarming active suitcase nukes on site [Russia and Iran].
v  The ability to halt Electro-magnetic pulse effects.
The ability to work out any mathematical task in a matter of seconds
[with no use of pen or calculator]. This led to his first contribution in an
v  Advanced Mathematics book used in top world universities including Harvard, Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Oxford, Princeton And Yale.
v  Deflection of an active midair intercontinental ballistic missile using
a cellular phone.
v  Triggering power failure of an entire city [Beijing, Berlin, Dubai, Moscow, Nairobi, New Delhi, New York, Tokyo and Washington, DC].
Developing an invincible bullet-proof human shield [Rogern’s NARS Technology®].
v  Multiple Internal Clock swap [Done Annually].
Hacking the Global Banking Mainframe and programming Asian, European and American [US and Canada] accounts to lose a Dollar that he later routed to multiple offshore accounts for humanitarian projects.
v  Levelling the value of five major world currencies in a financial test.[Documented]
Elimination of tracks and blocking back-trace efforts in hacking capability.
v  Generation of ghost satellite links to prevent the tracking of major
Airline routes by terrorists.
Thwarting phone tapping on various cellular networks by spy agencies.
v  Tracking the position of an individual using profile data via satellite.
Wiping of tax records owed on systems with no possibility of recovery by tax authorities [demonstration was authorized by IA].
Sir Neo still continues to generate new ideas and techniques in IT World. As a result of some of the above capabilities, Sir Roggi Rogern earned a Global/International Immunity status and a G8 Five Star Medal Rank after he was named the Best Cryptographer in 2005. The top twelve out of twenty-four awards he has received as a result of his ingenuity are:-
Ø  IT World’s Most Creative Mind – 2004
Ø  Best Cryptographer in the World – May 2005 & March 2006 [2 Trophies]
Ø  Supersonic Alacrity [SSA] – June 2006 [Shield]
Ø  Hero State Shield and a G8 Five Star Medal Rank– July 2005
Ø  Advanced Mathematics and Ingenuity Status – June 2006 [Shield & Trophy]
Ø  Top Best Cryptographer in the World– January 2007 [Shield & Trophy]
Ø  Multitasking, High Level Precision and Intellect – February 2007 [Shield & trophy]
Ø  Top Best Cryptographer of All Time – January 2008 [3 Gold Trophies]
Ø  Top Best Cryptographer of All Time – November 2008[Trophies Retained & 1 Added]
Ø  Guinness Award for Authentic Guinness Record – September 24, 2009
Ø  Phenomenal Status & Top Best Ingenious Mind of All Time – November 2009
Ø  The Most Essential Mind On Earth  – November 2011

Records Set In Cryptology and Technology Fields since May 2005:-

May 2005:-
ü  367 Precepts per minute
ü  Triple ‘A’ {AAA} in Cryptography/Cryptology
ü  Triple ‘A’ {AAA} in Advanced Mathematics
March 2006:-
ü  422 Precepts per minute
ü  Quadra ‘A’ {AAAA} in Cryptology Excellence
ü  Quadra ‘A’ {AAAA} in Advance Mathematics
January 2007:-
ü  729 Precepts per minute [Rated Speed of All Time in 2007]
ü  Quadra ‘A’ BA {AAAABA} in Cryptography
ü  Sextuple ‘A’ in Advanced Mathematics and Precision Intellect.
January 2008:-
ü  1,140 Precepts per minute [Record acknowledged by U.C.A.N]
ü  Sextuple ‘A’ {AAAAAA} in Cryptography and Cryptology Excellence
ü  Sextuple ‘A’ {AAAAAA} in Biotechnology, Biochemistry and Nuclear Tech
ü  Sextuple ‘A’ {AAAAAA} in Advanced Mathematics, Precision and Intellect.
November 2008:-
ü  1, 623 Precepts per minute ‘Nikhil Record’ [Record acknowledged by U.C.A.N]
ü  Echelon: AA –AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA with accolades in
ü  Cryptography and Cryptology Excellence,
ü  Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Geomagnetism, Advanced Mathematics,
ü  Precision and Intellect,
ü  Professional Engineering, Visual Arts, Advanced Physics,
ü  Artillery, Inventions, Micro Electronics,
ü  Linguistics, Communication and Networking.
Sir Roggi Rogern named this as ‘Nikhil Record’ in honor of his friend Nikhil Dave [Nikhil de Rogern].
September 2009:-
ü  1,759 Precepts per minute ‘Comeback Guinness Record’ [Record acknowledged by U.C.A.N and Guinness]
ü  Echelon: AA –AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA with a Doctorate in Science and Technology  [Acknowledged by Harvard, M.I.T, Oxford and Yale],
ü  Accolades in Cryptography and Cryptology Excellence, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Geomagnetism, Advanced Mathematics, Precision and Intellect, Professional Engineering, Visual Arts, Advanced Physics, Artillery, Inventions, Micro Electronics, Linguistics, Communication and Networking and Advanced Avionics.
This record is proven to be of 29 Precepts per second [1,759 precepts/min] on a single keyboard and over 58 Precepts per second [over 3500 precepts/min] on two keyboards simultaneously. He is rated the Top Best Ingenious Mind of All Time with Echelon: 17 ‘As’ {AA –AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA}. The test and rating is done and acknowledged by Universal Cryptography Agencies and Networks, U.C.A.N and Guinness.
November 2010:-
ü  1,958 Precepts per minute ‘Mama Joseph Rogern Record’ [Record acknowledged by U.C.A.N and G8+ Leaders In Honor Of Sir Rogern’s Late, Mother Wilfrida B. Dudu]
ü  Echelon: A –AAA –AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA with a Doctorate in Science and Technology [Acknowledged by Harvard, M.I.T, Oxford, Princeton and Yale],
ü  Accolades in Cryptography and Cryptology Excellence, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Geomagnetism, Advanced Mathematics, Informatics, Precision and Intellect, Professional Engineering, Visual Arts, Nuclear Physics, Advanced Physics, Artillery, Inventions, Advanced Forensics, Micro Electronics, Linguistics, Communication and Networking and Advanced Avionics.
Sir Roggi Rogern named this as ‘Mama Joseph Rogern Record/Dudu Record’ in honor of his late mother Wilfrida B. Dudu.
This record is proven to be over 32 Precepts per second [1,958 precepts/min] on a single keyboard and over 64 Precepts per second [over 3900 precepts/min] on two keyboards simultaneously. He is still rated the Top Best Ingenious Mind of All Time with Echelon: 19 ‘As’ { A –AAA –AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA}, The test and rating is done and acknowledged by Universal Cryptography Agencies and Networks, U.C.A.N and Endorsed by Leaders of G8+ Countries.
November 2011:-
ü  2,040 Precepts per minute ‘Rogern’s 7 Record’ [Record acknowledged by U.C.A.N and G8 + Leaders in Honour of Rogern’s 7 Ultimate]
ü  Echelon: AA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA with a Doctorate in Science and Technology [Acknowledged by Harvard, M.I.T, Oxford, Princeton and Yale];
ü  Accolades in Cryptography and Cryptology Excellence, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Geomagnetism, Electromagnetism, Advanced Mathematics, Informatics, Precision and Intellect, Professional Engineering, Visual Arts, Nuclear Physics, Advanced Physics, Artillery, Inventions, Neurology, Advanced Aeronautics, Advanced Forensics, Micro Electronics, Linguistics, Satellite Control, Communication and Networking, Spectrum Technology and Advanced Avionics.
Sir Neo Roggi Joseph Rogern Branson named this as ‘Rogern’s 7 Record’ to honor his seventh successive triumph in breaking previous records he set in the annual Universal Cryptography Agencies and Networks, U.C.A.N tests. Sir Neo’s superb performance in the November 11, 2011 Cryptography and Technology Minds’ rating, is said to have been highly influenced by the members of G8 Elite & Rogern’s 7 Ultimate namely Ashish Rambilas Varma Rogern Branson [Sir Neo’s Brother and Ultimate Partner], Brody Scheaodjzehr, Brandon Timberlake, Mikhael Jojovic, Rashid ‘Romeo’ Sidik, Shanice McIntyre and Trent Scheaodjzehr.
This record is proven to be of 34 Precepts per second [2,040 precepts/min] on a single keyboard and over 69 Precepts per second [over 4140 precepts/min] on two keyboards simultaneously. He is still rated the Top Best Ingenious Mind of All Time with Echelon: 23 ‘As’ { AA– AAA – AAA –AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA – AAA}, The test and rating is done and acknowledged by Universal Cryptography Agencies and Networks, U.C.A.N and Endorsed by Leaders of G8+ Countries.

Personal Life

For nearly a decade, Sir Neo Rogern Branson preferred to travel to Africa because of his late mother and business investments. Although he is a long-term resident of King Charles Street in London, Sir Rogern acquired a house in Venice beach of California around 2005, owns a villa in Monte Carlo, Mansions in East Africa and apartments New York and New Delhi.
Born in Manchester, Sir Neo Rogern Branson is a Royal British Citizen and also holds G8 and Israeli citizenships through the principle of Jus sanguinis.
Sir Neo Rogern is single and has never been married. In May 2006 though, Rogern was engaged to an Indian top model and was later involved in a government deal that broke off the engagement on emotional distress claims. Sir Neo later had a negligence lawsuit filed by the X-fiancée who wished to claim half of the several billion dollars Sir Neo was worth at the time but this was countered in India. Though these events happened soon after the break up, he has only once spoken about them publicly, saying that he had to make a choice between his work and personal affairs.
Sir Neo Branson derives great teachings and spiritual knowledge from Pontiff Raphael Titus.
He has also been widely spotted with Indian and Israeli priests in various temples worldwide.
Sir Neo’s associates are Ashish R.V.R Branson, Brody Scheaodjzehr, Brandon Timberlake, Mikhael Jojovic, Rashid ‘Romeo’ Sidik, Shanice McIntyre and Trent Scheaodjzehr who are also acknowledged by the Intelligence Community.
Recently in a G8 session though, Sir Neo Rogern Branson accredited for the first time that he has a guardian by the name Divyesh Patel who has impacted his life. He also hinted on a possible filling of the G8 Endorsed Second Ultimate Partner position by Mr. Divyesh’s son, Veeral Patel. Both Mr. Divyesh Patel and Veeral Patel are also listed as untouchables globally as a result of Sir Rogern’s Global/International Immunity Status and high influential power.
Sir Neo’s Brother and Ultimate Partner Ashish R.V.R Branson [Aarav Varma] is indeed highly protected as he is second on the GLOBAL LIST OF UNTOUCHABLES.
Other than his addiction to computer keyboards Sir Roggi Rogern Branson also plays Piano/Keyboard. He is known to play the keyboard of songs compositions including “What Goes Around…Comes Around” in Justin Timberlake’s Future/Sex Sounds Album, Ne-Yo’s “Mad” in The Year of The Gentleman, “Addicted” by Enrique Iglesias and “Just Stand Up”, a performance by Various Artists stand up to cancer.
Sir Rogern owns a private jet powered by Pratt & Whitney JT8D-219 engines. The jet was custom-made for an estimated $85,000,000 [nicknamed ‘the toy’]. EU Aviation Authorities and F.A.A confirmed that Rogern had over 12,000 hours of flying business jets, F18s, F35s, Helicopters and Stealth Jets. This proves that his ingenuity extends beyond all borders and has no limit. He also owns a boat in U.K.
On Friday, February 6, 2009, the world press reported that Sir Neo Rogern Branson lost his mother. Soon after his mother’s demise, Sir Rogern cut ties with GIA-RR, Inc. Sir Roggi Rogern has since declined to work for the GIA and chose to be Independent. He is now regarded as the G8+ Authoritè.
CNN Fortune recently indicated that all his multi-billion funds were routed to boost world economies in June, 2009. The figure according CNN’s 10,000 world top evaluators and accountants was given to be seven billion Sterling Pounds. He has high stakes in a world renowned Airliner and three European football clubs.
Sir Neo Branson, now aged 23, is listed as the most profitable man on earth earning twenty-eight million Euros weekly from the G8 Countries and various technologies. He is the world’s youngest multi-billionaire worth twelve billion Euros.

Conclusion

The path has been set for a ‘Leap Kid’ Sir Neo Roggi Joseph Rogern Branson, the world’s hope of ending the risk of Nuclear attacks as he has the ability to manipulate active mid-air missiles and disarm them using cellular Technology. He is the kid whose abilities unite the Blacks (Africans); the eldest son, the Browns (Asian and Indians alike); the Middle son and the Whites (Americans and Europeans); the last Born.
Sir Neo Rogern Branson’s unmatched Crytologic abilities make Governments and major private firms seek his attention in tracing and retrieving lost funds. Corporations and Businessmen also find him useful in tracing funds lost through bounced checks and funds demanded from legit business by corrupt individuals in positions of power worldwide. Regardless of the high-risk, Sir Rogern does it all knowing full well he is shielded by Global/International Immunity. He returns to legit people, huge amounts that is demanded from them by corrupt individuals and that’s Justice.
A hacker, he is – Refined as the world’s Number One Cryptologist. Sir Neo R.J.R Branson is an Independent G8+ Endorsed Ultimate Global Technology Authoritè with high-level clearance to all foreign offices. Sir Neo Rogern Branson is said to have Neo-State-of-the-Art technological system that makes all world security agencies look like an Internet café. For this reason he is known to be The Ultimate Force and so we all depend on his abilities to secure the world.
A world free of weapons intended to be used against humanity is being realized through the hands of Sir Neo Roggi Joseph Rogern Branson.
Sources: Extracted from various Government Databases including European Union, India, Israel, Russia, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom and United States National Security Agency.

Samsung Galaxy Tab 10.1 Goes on Sale in Kenya at Ksh 70,000 ($739)

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Guys, it is here. The Samsung Galaxy Tab 10.1 is going on sale in Safaricom and FoneXpress stores all over Kenya. The iconic device is expected to retail at Ksh 70,000 while the older Galaxy Tab 7″ is retailing at Ksh 39,000 at Safaricom shops. It will be available at the two shops but I am not sure if that would be exclusively or not.

The company is facing a host of legal battles in different markets pitting it against Apple’s iPad.

The new Galaxy Tab supports Safaricom and the Orange HSPA+ network speeds of up to 21Mbps and comes pre-loaded with Readers Hub and Music Hub giving consumers instant access to more than 2.2 million books, 2,000 newspaper, 2,300 magazines and 13 million songs.

At KSh 70,000, the tablet is way much cheaper than the iPads and PlayBooks being sold at FoneXpress with the starting price in the range of Ksh 74,000.

 

Samsung GALAXY Tab 10.1″ Specs; 

Network HSPA+ 21Mbps  850/900/1900/2100
EDGE/GPRS  850/900/1800/1900
OS Android™ 3.0 (Honeycomb)
Display  10.1” WXGA 1280×800
Processor 1GHz Dual Core application processor
Camera Main(Rear): 3.0-Mega Pixel Camera AF with LED Flash
Front: 2.0-Mega Pixel Camera
Video Format :MPEG4/H263/H264,Divx/Xvid
Playback : 1080p Full HD Video @ 30fps
Recording : 720p HD Video
Audio MP3, AAC, AAC+, eAAC+, OGG, MIDI, AMR-NB/WB
3.5mm Ear Jack, Surround Sound Stereo Speakers
Enterprise Solutions Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync
Quickoffice HD Editor
Value-added Features Android Market™
GoogleMobile Services :
Google™ Talk Video Chat, Google™ Maps, Books, etc.
Samsung TouchWiz UX
Samsung Mini Apps Tray
Social Hub, Music Hub, Readers Hub
*Availability differs by region
Adobe Flash Player 10.2
Connectivity Bluetooth® technology v 2.1 + EDR
USB 2.0
WiFi 802.11 (a/b/g/n)
Sensor Gyroscope, Accelerometer, Digital Compass, Ambient Light sensor
Memory 16G / 32G / 64G, microSD (up to 32GB)
*Size 256.6 x 172.9 x 8.6 mm, 595g
Battery 6800mAh

COP shot dead in Mombasa

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COP shot dead in Mombasa

logindonald reports

This policeman won’t be home for Christmas.

This brave cop, won’t kiss his baby goodnight, no more, this Cop won’t see his kids.

This cop, even in death, vowed not to let his gun fall into the wrong hands…he died clutching it.

He died protecting you and me.

The policeman was shot dead by gangsters in Mombasa’s Bondeni area.

And as we all get ready to celebrate and make merry this festive season, remember the Citizens On Patrol who are out there in the streets…making the streets safer for you and me.

Let’s remember and celebrate the men and women in uniform, who leave their families and risk their lives protecting us.

This December, Logindonald challenges you our dear reader: When you come across a cop, be it on the highway, around the corner mtaani kwenu, ama anywhere in town….do this – take off your heart, pigia yeye makofi, and tell him/her how much his/her presence means to you.

And why not, you can even buy him a Kilo of Nyama Choma apelekee watoi.

That’s the Kenyan spirit.